Oct 23 2009

cisco 642-845 exam Sample Questions

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The relate exam: 000-374 exam,000-015 exam,hp0-s20 exam and 220-702 exam


Jul 16 2009

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Jul 15 2009

642-566 IT cetification at TestInside

The 642-566 UCAD Unified Communications Architecture and Design exam is the exam associated with the Cisco IP Telephony Design Specialist certification. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of technical issues surrounding the design of Voice over Data network and explains a methodology that brings order to approaching the problems faced by planners and designers, including assessment of the current network, Cisco methodology for implementing Voice over Data networks, and how to design sustainable and appropriate implementations. Candidates can prepare for this exam by taking the UCAD Cisco Unified Communications Architecture and Design course.

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The related exam:650-251 and 642-383


Jul 14 2009

The latest 642-524 free demo

Exam: Cisco 642-524

Title : Securing Networks with ASA Foundation

Version : Demo

1. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator for this site wants hosts on DMZ2 to be able to make HTTP connections to host 172.16.1.10. Hosts on DMZ2 are currently unable to make these connections. The network administrator checks the security appliance and determines that there are no access lists configured on either the DMZ1 or DMZ2 interfacE. Which task or set of tasks does the administrator need to complete to enable all hosts on DMZ2 to make HTTP connections to host 172.16.1.10?

A. Configure an access rule on the DMZ2 interface permitting HTTP from network 172.25.3.0/24 to IP address 172.16.1.10. Then enable HTTP inspection in the global policy.
B. Configure an access rule on the DMZ1 interface permitting HTTP from network 172.25.3.0/24 to IP address 172.16.1.10.
C. Configure a dynamic NAT rule specifying DMZ1/172.16.1.0 as the original interface/address and DMZ2/172.25.3.0 as the translated interface/address.
D. Configure a dynamic NAT rule specifying DMZ2/172.25.3.0 as the original interface/address and DMZ1/172.16.1.0 as the translated interface/address.
Answer: D

2. Which three statements about clientless SSL VPN are true? (Choose threE. )
A. Users are not required to use any particular PC or workstation.
B. It requires little or no desktop support by IT organizations.
C. Client software is dynamically downloaded from the adaptive security appliance to the remote PC without any interaction from the end user or the network administrator.
D. Users have full, direct access to resources on the internal network.
E. It requires an SSL-enabled web browser.
F. Browser cookies must be disabled for the proper operation of clientless SSL VPN.
Answer: ABE

3. Which four parameters must be defined in an IKE policy when creating an IPsec site-to-site VPN? (Choose four.)
A. message encryption algorithm
B. message integrity (hash) algorithm
C. perfect forward secrecy
D. peer authentication method
E. key exchange parameters (DH group ID)
F. interesting traffic
Answer: ABDE

4. To require users to authenticate before accessing the corporate DMZ servers, the network security administrator needs to configure cut-through proxy authentication via RADIUS. Which three tasks are required to accomplish this goal? (Choose threE. )
A. Specify a AAA server group.
B. Designate an authentication server.
C. Add users to the local user database
D. Configure per-user overridE.
E. Configure a rule that specifies which traffic flow to authenticatE.
F. Assign ACLs to users or groups.
Answer: ABE

5. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about configuring passive RIP on the security appliance are true? (Choose two.)

A. You must specify a classful network IP address to define a network for the RIP routing process.
B. Auto-summarization must be disabled when using RIP version 1.
C. There is no limit to the number of networks you can specify for the RIP routing process.
D. If you enable passive RIP, all interfaces must operate in passive modE.
E. Enabling passive RIP mode causes the security appliance to receive all RIP routing updates but send only a default route to neighboring routers.
Answer: AC

6. Which three steps are mandatory for configuring VLAN trunking on a security appliance interface? (Choose threE. )
A. configuring the speed and duplex on a subinterface to match to the speed and duplex settings of an associated physical interface
B. specifying a name for a subinterface
C. configuring a MAC address for a subinterface
D. associating a logical interface with a physical interface
E. specifying a VLAN ID for a subinterface
F. specifying the maximum transmission unit for a subinterface
Answer: BDE

7. Refer to the exhibit. Which three commands would verify that the boot image is asa802-k8.bin? (Choose threE. )

A. show disk0:
B. show bootvar
C. show startup-config
D. show asdm image
E. show device-boot history
F. show version
Answer: BCF

8. Which two statements accurately describe the effects of this configuration?
(Choose two.)
class-map INBOUND_HTTP_TRAFFIC
match access-list TOINSIDEHOST
class-map OUTBOUND_HTTP_TRAFFIC
match access-list TOOUTSIDEHOST
policy-map MYPOLICY
class INBOUND_HTTP_TRAFFIC
inspect http
set connection conn-max 100
policy-map MYOTHERPOLICY
class OUTBOUND_HTTP_TRAFFIC
inspect http
service-policy MYOTHERPOLICY interface inside
service-policy MYPOLICY interface outside
A. Traffic that enters the security appliance through the outside interface and matches access control list TOINSIDEHOST is subject to maximum connection limits only.
B. Traffic that enters the security appliance through the inside interface and matches access control list TOOUTSIDEHOST is subject to HTTP inspection and connection limits.
C. Traffic that enters the security appliance through the outside interface and matches access control list TOINSIDEHOST is subject to HTTP inspection and maximum connection limits.
D. Traffic that enters the security appliance through the inside interface and matches access control list TOOUTSIDEHOST is subject to HTTP inspection.
E. Traffic that matches access control list TOINSIDEHOST is subject to HTTP inspection and maximum connection limits.
F. Traffic that enters the security appliance through the inside interface is subject to HTTP inspection.
Answer: CD

9. Which two statements accurately describe multiple context mode? (Choose two.)
A. Multiple context mode does not support IPS, IPsec, and SSL VPNs, or dynamic routing protocols.
B. Multiple context mode enables you to create multiple independent virtual firewalls with their own security policies and interfaces.
C. When you convert from single mode to multiple context mode, a context named “admin,” from which you must create all other contexts, is automatically createD.
D. When you convert from single mode to multiple mode, the original startup
configuration is saved as old_startup.cfg in the root directory of the internal flash memory.
E. When you convert from single mode to multiple mode, the security appliance automatically adds an entry for the admin context to the system configuration with the name “admin.”
F. Multiple context mode enables you to add to the security appliance a hardware module that supports up to four independent virtual firewalls.
Answer: BE

10. In what two ways can you decrease the amount of time it takes for an active Cisco ASA adaptive security appliance to fail over to its standby failover peer in an active/active failover configuration? (Choose two.)
A. You must configure two failover groups: group 1 and group 2.
B. You must configure failover interface parameters from the admin context.
C. Both units must be in single modE.
D. Both units must be in multiple modE.
E. You must use a crossover cable to connect the failover links on the two failover peers.
F. You must assign contexts to failover groups from the admin context.
Answer: AD

11. Which three statements about protocol inspection on the Cisco ASA adaptive security appliance are true? (Choose threE. )
A. All inspections are enabled by default.
B. If you want to enable inspection globally for a protocol that is not inspected by default or if you want to globally disable inspection for a protocol, you can edit the default global policy.
C. If you want to enable inspection globally for a protocol that is not inspected by default or if you want to globally disable inspection for a protocol, you must edit the default global policy; you cannot disable the default global policy and apply a new global policy.
D. For the security appliance to inspect packets for signs of malicious application misuse, you must enable advanced (application layer) protocol inspection.
E. The protocol inspection feature of the security appliance securely opens and closes negotiated ports and IP addresses for legitimate client-server connections through the security appliance
F. If inspection for a protocol is not enabled, traffic for that protocol may be blockeD.
Answer: BEF

12. What is the purpose of the redundant interface feature of the security appliance?
A. to increase the number of interfaces available to your network without requiring you to add additional physical interfaces or security appliances
B. to facilitate out-of-band management
C. to increase the reliability of your security appliance
D. to allow a VPN client to send IPsec-protected traffic to another VPN user by allowing such traffic in and out of the same interface
E. to enable VPN clients that do not have split tunneling to both access a VPN and browse the web, by redirecting incoming VPN traffic back out through the same interface as unencrypted traffic
Answer: C

13. Which four steps for configuring a redundant interface and using it as a failover link are correct? (Choose four.)
A. Configure the redundant interface as part of the basic configuration on both security appliances.
B. Connect the two security appliances directly with a crossover cable or a straight-through Ethernet cable
C. Assign a redundant interface ID to the redundant interfacE.
D. Configure a name for the redundant interface
E. Configure an IP address on the physical member interfaces.
F. Configure a security level and IP address for the redundant interface
Answer: ACDF

14. Which three actions would you be able to do with a Layer 3/4 modular policy? (Choose three )
A. reset FTP connections that contain certain FTP commands
B. perform a specified protocol inspection or inspections
C. log packets that constitute a protocol violation
D. direct a traffic flow to the low latency queue
E. set connection parameters on a traffic flow
F. drop sessions with packets that are out of order
Answer: BDE

15. Why might you want to configure VLANs on a security appliance interface?
A. for use in transparent firewall mode, where only VLAN interfaces are used
B. for use in multiple context mode, where you can map only VLAN interfaces to contexts
C. to increase the number of interfaces available to the network without adding additional physical interfaces or security appliances
D. for use in conjunction with device-level failover to increase the reliability of your security appliance
Answer: C

The related exam:642-504 and 642-456


Jul 14 2009

642-591 exam information

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Understanding Log / Trace Files
Understanding UCCE Agent Issues and Considerations
Understanding UCCE Call Flow Issues and Considerations
Understanding common UCCE call processing issues
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The related exam:642-542 640-822


Jul 13 2009

CISCO 640-822 free demo

Exam: CISCO 640-822

Title : Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1

Version : Demo

1. Refer to the exhibit. The junior network support staff provided the diagram as a recommended configuration for the first phase of a four-phase network expansion project. The entire network expansion will have over 1000 users on 14 network segments and has been allocated this IP address space:
192.168.1.1 through 192.168.5.255
192.168.100.1 through 198.168.100.255
What are three problems with this design? (Choose three.)

A. The AREA 1 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users.
B. The AREA 3 IP address space is inadequate for the number of users.
C. AREA 2 could use a mask of /25 to conserve IP address space.
D. The network address space that is provided requires a single network-wide mask.
E. The router-to-router connection is wasting address space.
F. The broadcast domain in AREA 1 is too large for IP to function.
Answer: ACE

2. A network administrator is connecting PC hosts A and B directly through their Ethernet interfaces as shown in the graphic. Ping attempts between the hosts are unsuccessful. What can be done to provide connectivity between the hosts? (Choose two.)

A. A crossover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable.
B. A rollover cable should be used in place of the straight-through cable
C. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.192.
D. A default gateway needs to be set on each host.
E. The hosts must be reconfigured to use private IP addresses for direct connections of this type.
F. The subnet masks should be set to 255.255.255.0.
Answer: AF

3. Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
C. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
D. to protect the IP and MAC address of the switch and associated ports
E. to block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces over common TCP ports
Answer: C

4. Which two statements best describe the wireless security standard that is defined by WPA? (Choose two.)
A. It specifies use of a static encryption key that must be changed frequently to enhance security.
B. It requires use of an open authentication method.
C. It specifies the use of dynamic encryption keys that change each time a client establishes a connection.
D. It requires that all access points and wireless devices use the same encryption key.
E. It includes authentication by PSK.
Answer: CE

5. Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three.)

A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
D. Ensure the switch has power.
E. Reboot all of the devices.
F. Reseat all cables.
Answer: BDF

6. Refer to the exhibit. Host A needs to send data to Host B. Which Layer 2 and Layer 3 destination addresses will be used to send the data from Host A to Host B?

A. 192.168.60.5 and 0011.43da.2c98
B. 192.168.60.5 and 0007.0e56.ab2e
C. 192.168.24.1 and 0007.0e56.ab2e
D. 192.168.24.2 and 0007.0e84.acef
Answer: B
7. Refer to the exhibit. The IP address space of 128.107.7.0/24 has been allocated for all devices on this network. All devices must use the same subnet mask and all subnets are usable. Which subnet mask is required to apply the allocated address space to the configuration that is shown?

A. 255.255.254.0
B. 255.255.255.0
C. 255.255.255.128
D. 255.255.255.192
E. 255.255.255.224
Answer: D

8. Which two statements describe the operation of the CSMA/CD access method? (Choose two.)
A. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, multiple stations can successfully transmit data simultaneously.
B. In a CSMA/CD collision domain, stations must wait until the media is not in use before transmitting.
C. The use of hubs to enlarge the size of collision domains is one way to improve the operation of the CSMA/CD access method.
D. After a collision, the station that detected the collision has first priority to resend the lost data.
E. After a collision, all stations run a random backoff algorithm. When the backoff delay period has expired, all stations have equal priority to transmit data.
F. After a collision, all stations involved run an identical backoff algorithm and then synchronize with each other prior to transmitting data.
Answer: BE

9. Refer to the exhibit. What two facts can be determined from the WLAN diagram? (Choose two.)

A. The area of overlap of the two cells represents a basic service set (BSS).
B. The network diagram represents an extended service set (ESS).
C. Access points in each cell must be configured to use channel 1.
D. The area of overlap must be less than 10% of the area to ensure connectivity.
E. The two APs should be configured to operate on different channels.
Answer: BE

10. Assuming a subnet mask of 255.255.248.0, which three addresses are valid host addresses? (Choose three.)
A. 172.16.8.0
B. 172.16.9.0
C. 172.16.16.0
D. 172.16.20.0
E. 172.16.24.0
F. 172.16.31.0
Answer: BDF

11. Refer to the exhibit. A technician pastes the configurations in the exhibit into the two new routers shown. Otherwise, the routers are configured with their default configurations. A ping from Host1 to Host2 fails, but the technician is able to ping the S0/0 interface of R2 from Host1. The configurations of the hosts have been verified as correct. What could be the cause of the problem?

A. The serial cable on R1 needs to be replaced.
B. The interfaces on R2 are not configured properly.
C. R1 has no route to the 192.168.1.128 network.
D. The IP addressing scheme has overlapping subnetworks.
E. The ip subnet-zero command must be configured on both routers.
Answer: C

12. Which form of NAT maps multiple private IP addresses to a single registered IP address by using different ports?
A. static NAT
B. dynamic NAT
C. overloading
D. overlapping
E. port loading
Answer: C

13. What should be part of a comprehensive network security plan?
A. Allow users to develop their own approach to network security.
B. Physically secure network equipment from potential access by unauthorized individuals.
C. Encourage users to use personal information in their passwords to minimize the likelihood of passwords being forgotten.
D. Delay deployment of software patches and updates until their effect on end-user equipment is well known and widely reported.
E. Minimize network overhead by deactivating automatic antivirus client updates.
Answer: B

14. A single 802.11g access point has been configured and installed in the center of a square office. A few wireless users are experiencing slow performance and drops while most users are operating at peak efficiency. What are three likely causes of this problem? (Choose three.)
A. mismatched TKIP encryption
B. null SSID
C. cordless phones
D. mismatched SSID
E. metal file cabinets
F. antenna type or direction
Answer: CEF

15. What two actions must a router take in order to route incoming packets? (Choose two.)
A. Identify the destination network address of each packet.
B. Identify the source network address of each packet.
C. Validate sources of routing information.
D. Inspect the routing table to select the best path to the destination network address.
E. Verify the receipt of routed packets by the next hop router.
F. Inspect the ARP table to verify a legitimate source MAC address for each packet.
Answer: AD

16. Refer to the exhibit. What is the effect of the configuration that is shown?

A. It configures SSH globally for all logins.
B. It tells the router or switch to try to establish an SSh connection first and if that fails to use Telnet.
C. It configures the virtual terminal lines with the password 030752180500.
D. It configures a Cisco network device to use the SSH protocol on incoming communications via the virtual terminal ports.
E. It allows seven failed login attempts before the VTY lines are temporarily shutdown.
Answer: D

17. What are two recommended ways of protecting network device configuration files from outside network security threats? (Choose two.)
A. Allow unrestricted access to the console or VTY ports.
B. Use a firewall to restrict access from the outside to the network devices.
C. Always use Telnet to access the device command line because its data is automatically encrypted.
D. Use SSH or another encrypted and authenticated transport to access device configurations.
E. Prevent the loss of passwords by disabling password encryption.
Answer: BD

18. Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two.)
A. The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.
B. The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
C. The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0
D. The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0.
E. The network is not subnetted.
Answer: BD

19. After the router interfaces shown in the diagram have been configured, it is discovered that hosts in the Branch LAN cannot access the Internet. Further testing reveals additional connectivity issues. What will fix this problem?

A. Change the address of the Branch router LAN interface.
B. Change the address of the Branch router WAN interface.
C. Change the subnet mask of the HQ router LAN interface.
D. Change the address of the HQ router LAN interface.
E. Change the address of the HQ router interface to the Internet.
F. Change the subnet mask of the HQ router interface to the Internet.
Answer: B

20. Refer to the exhibit. Serial0/0 does not respond to a ping request from a host on the FastEthernet0/0 LAN. How can this problem be corrected?

A. Enable the Serial 0/0 interface.
B. Correct the IP address for Serial 0/0.
C. Correct the IP address for FastEthernet 0/0.
D. Change the encapsulation type on Serial 0/0.
E. Enable autoconfiguration on the Serial 0/0 interface.
Answer: A

The related exam:642-873


Jul 13 2009

350-025 training tools

Cisco 350-025 exam is also known as Unified Contact Center Enterprise Support (UCCES). Self Exam Engine 350-025 training tools are a tested and proven way of getting Cisco certified in minimum time limits while saving lots of your efforts, time and money. Self Exam Engine 350-025 study questions reflect the advanced-level of exam simulation and industry expertise, as these products will deliver you the answers of as high as 100% real exam questions. You can see the 350-025 Free Samples to experience the exam simulation of these questions before you decide to buy it. Cisco exams training tools cover the following topics and their skills offered by this exam:


Understanding of UCCE Tools
Understanding Log / Trace Files
Understanding UCCE Agent Issues and Considerations
Understanding UCCE Call Flow Issues and Considerations
Understanding common UCCE call processing issues
Students must also be able to demonstrate an understanding of these areas


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The related exam:350-018


Jul 13 2009

642-456 IT certification

Exam Description
The Routing and Switching Solutions for Systems Engineers 642-456  is the exam associated with the Routing and Switching Solutions Specialist certification. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge of customer’s complex technical and business requirements, customer advanced technology requirements, capabilities of Cisco routing and switching solutions, solutions that encompass the features of advanced routing and switching to meet customer requirements.


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The related exam:642-145


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Jul 11 2009

The 642-502 exam practice

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The related exam:642-871


Jul 11 2009

642-812 training tools

Cisco 642-812 exam is also known as Unified Contact Center Enterprise Support (UCCES). Self Exam Engine 642-812 training tools are a tested and proven way of getting Cisco certified in minimum time limits while saving lots of your efforts, time and money. Self Exam Engine 642-812 study questions reflect the advanced-level of exam simulation and industry expertise, as these products will deliver you the answers of as high as 100% real exam questions. You can see the 642-812 Free Samples to experience the exam simulation of these questions before you decide to buy it. Cisco exams training tools cover the following topics and their skills offered by this exam:

Understanding of UCCE Tools
Understanding Log / Trace Files
Understanding UCCE Agent Issues and Considerations
Understanding UCCE Call Flow Issues and Considerations
Understanding common UCCE call processing issues
Students must also be able to demonstrate an understanding of these areas

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The related exam:646-003